- In terms of International law, you would be right if Israel "occupied" "Palestine" in '67. But it did not. Israel occupied a Jordanian occupied land, the "West Bank", therefore the clause you are refering to is not applicable and I am as legal in Tapuah as I'd be in Tel Aviv. One. Two, in terms of divine Jewish Law, and even according to the koran, this Land is reserved for Jews only. The rest is simple Jew-hatred.
- This is talkback # 75 on Settlers’ rights trampled
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Question. Do Arabs Back Israel in a Clash with Iran? - by Evelyn Gordon - *As for all the self-proclaimed realists who remain fixated on Israel despite the change in Arab attitudes that has destroyed their main argument, perhaps ...
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